Succession question..?
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Archived from the IMDb Discussion Forums — The Crown
Acid_Reflex — 9 years ago(December 22, 2016 02:45 PM)
Why is Elizabeth inheriting the throne when her mother and grandmother are still alive? I am assuming George (and his brother first) ended up there with Mom still alive because it is a gender thing, but how does the daughter outrank mom and grandma?
Sorry, ignorant American here LOL.
"There are three kinds of lies: lies, damned lies, and statistics."
Mark Twain -
Julie-30 — 9 years ago(December 23, 2016 07:34 PM)
Queen Mary was so far removed from inheriting the throne in her own right that there is really no point in even thinking about it. She was descended from a child of George III who was younger than Edward, Duke of Kent (Victoria's father). So, the only way she'd have inherited is if Victoria (and several other people) had never been born.
As for Queen Elizabeth (a.k.a. The Queen Mum) she wasn't a royal until she married into the family. She was the daughter of a Scottish earl.
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Julie-30 — 9 years ago(December 24, 2016 03:14 AM)
Not to me.
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Julie-30 — 9 years ago(December 24, 2016 06:17 AM)
Super geek at your service.
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raymondhng — 9 years ago(December 28, 2016 07:46 AM)
The king's wife is a queen
consort
as opposed to a queen
regnant
. A queen regnant is the monarch because she is a descendant of a monarch. A queen consort receives that courtesy title only because she is married to a monarch. Elizabeth II of the UK and Margrethe II of Denmark are queen regnants (and they happen to be third cousins through their common ancestor Victoria of the UK).
Wilhelmina of the Netherlands, Juliana of the Netherlands, and Beatrix of the Netherlands were all queen regnants.
When Crown Princess Victoria inherits the Swedish throne, she will be queen regnant.
Silvia of Sweden, Sonja of Norway, Letizia of Spain, Maxima of the Netherlands are queen consorts.
Mary of the UK and Elizabeth the Queen Mother of the UK were queen consorts.
The UK had male-
preferred
primogeniture succession (males before females). This is in contrast to Japan which has male-
only
primogeniture succession (no females). After succession laws were changed in 2013, the UK now has absolute primogeniture succession (regardless of gender) along with Norway, Sweden, Belgium, and the Netherlands. -
lark-10 — 9 years ago(January 22, 2017 04:25 AM)
Because women take their husband's title not the other way around. As Miss Smith when you marry Mr Jones you become Mrs Jones. He doesn't become Mr Smith and there's more this explains it well . http://royalcentral.co.uk/blogs/explanation/why-isnt-prince-philip-king-22725
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Theshornwonder — 9 years ago(January 25, 2017 01:20 PM)
A king is generally a higher rank than queen. Because only Elizabeth is entitled to the throne (her father was king) and Phillip is simply her husband, he's a prince/duke only. To give him the title of King would be to place him above his wife, the Queen Regnant and rightful heir. This problem doesn't occur when the monarch is a man because he becomes King, so giving his wife the title of Queen does not place her above him in any way. Thus, William will become King and Kate will become Queen, but if, for example Charlotte became Queen (say George abdicates or God forbid, dies) her husband would never be granted the title King. He'd be a prince-duke like his great grandfather. The only instance I know where the closer, stronger claimant to the throne was a woman but she and her husband ruled as King and Queen is William and Mary who came from the Netherlands to ensure protestant control remained. I'm not sure what Phillip of Spain called himself when he married Queen Mary (Henry VIII's first daughter). He was certainly King of Spain, but was only Mary's consort, so his English title probably wasn't King.
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lrdcharlton — 9 years ago(January 25, 2017 04:06 PM)
Queen Mary's Husband King Phillip was a King Consort of England for the duration of his life. When Queen Mary of Scots was married to Francis II of France, he was King consort of Scots and had he lived longer he would have been given a Crown Matrimony, which would enable him to rule Scotland as King even if Queen Mary died and they had no children. In that instance he would be able to pass the Scotland's Throne to any children he had with a different wife. Mary's 2nd husband Lord Darnley, was King Consort of Scotland when he married Mary of Scots, so unlike Phillip and Francis, he came to the union with no kingdom of his own. Isabella and Ferndinad(the Catholic monarchs)Both came into the unions as Monarchs in there own right, however it was not an equal share in power in relation to their role in the spouses kingdoms. In Feridinand case he was legally obligated to power in his wife's kingdoms while she was merely a consort to his kingdoms.There have been other King consorts throughout history, though they are generally recognized to be equal to a Queen consot
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raymondhng — 9 years ago(January 30, 2017 01:56 AM)
Philip was King of England de
jure uxoris
, not King Consort.
http://www.imdb.com/board/14786824/board/nest/264430532?d=265569213#265569213 -
njgill — 9 years ago(January 26, 2017 03:02 PM)
but if, for example Charlotte became Queenher husband would never be granted the title King. He'd be a prince-duke like his great grandfather.
A) Charlotte would be Queen
Regnant
, not Queen
Consort- there is a big difference;
B) How do you you know who her putative consort's ancestor might have been?
- there is a big difference;
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Theshornwonder — 9 years ago(February 03, 2017 09:18 PM)
I didn't suggest Charlotte would be anything but Queen Regnant.
I don't care who his ancestors are, a Queen Regnant intoday's time in England is not going to grant a foreign king the title of King in England. He'd carry a title like Philip. If he's also King of Spain, he'd have that title too. -
raymondhng — 9 years ago(January 30, 2017 01:51 AM)
Under the terms of the Act for the Marriage of Queen Mary to Philip of Spain, Philip was to enjoy Mary I's titles and honors for as long as their marriage should last. All official documents, including Acts of Parliament, were to be dated with both their names, and Parliament was to be called under the joint authority of the couple. Coins were also to show the heads of both Mary and Philip. The marriage treaty also provided that England would not be obliged to provide military support to Philip's father in any war. The Privy Council instructed that Philip and Mary should be joint signatories of royal documents, and this was enacted by an Act of Parliament, which gave him the title of king and stated that he "shall aid her Highness in the happy administration of her Graces realms and dominions." In other words, Philip was to co-reign with his wife. As the new King of England could not read English, it was ordered that a note of all matters of state should be made in Latin or Spanish.
The couple had no children. Mary died in 1558 before the union could revitalize the Roman Catholic Church in England. With her death, Philip lost his rights to the English throne (including the ancient English claims to the French throne) and ceased to be King of England, Ireland and (as claimed by them) France.
So from 25 July 1554 17 November 1558, his title was King of England de jure uxoris as Philip I.
Jure uxoris
is a Latin term that means "by right of (his) wife". Jure uxoris monarchs are not to be confused with kings consort, who were merely consorts of their wives, not co-rulers.