God is moral. In fact, God is the measure of morality, the benchmark.
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Archived from the IMDb Discussion Forums — The Passion of the Christ
marty-130-840283 — 9 years ago(January 23, 2017 07:30 AM)
God is moral. In fact, God is the measure of morality, the benchmark.
It is man, that is immoral. God is just sitting up there, watching his creation maim, kill, torture, lie, steal etc,
It is us, who are immoral.
You talk about morality. What is morality? There must be a standard of morality, that we must adhere to, or measure up to. Morality is absolute, (from God)
Is morality based each individuals view of morality? Everyones might be different. Or, is there 1 overarching, universal standard for morality? Yes , there is, and God insituted it. For example, we know stealing is wrong. We just inherently know. We know rape is wrong etc. -
mamu2 — 9 years ago(January 23, 2017 07:52 AM)
We know rape is wrong etc.
God commands his people to commit rape in the Bible. Mankind knows God is wrong about that, so they eventually made laws to make it a crime because it is so immoral.
Same with slavery. God commands his people to take slaves and gives them clear instructions on how to do it in the Bible. Mankind knows God is wrong about that as well, so they eventually made laws to make it a crime because it is so immoral.
Morality clearly changes over time. Many of God's immoral laws are simply ignored or discarded in favor of moral ones today. Adulterers are no longer stoned in most places on the planet. Genocide is almost universally looked down upon as immoral. All things ordered by God in the Bible, now condemned by most of the planet. -
bastasch8647 — 9 years ago(January 17, 2017 01:59 PM)
Question: "Why did Jesus have to experience so much suffering?"
Answer: Isaiah 52:14 declares, Just as there were many who were appalled at HimHis appearance was so disfigured beyond that of any man and his form marred beyond human likeness.
Unfortunately for Christian soteriology, the Isaiah passage is not Messianic whatsoever, and it does not refer to Jesus. It's part of the "Servant Song", which depicts Israel's suffering, not the Messiah's. The "he" in these texts is not an individual, but rather a reference to corporate Israel, just as we might refer to the Church, or to a ship, as "she".
Isaiah is saying that Israel's sufferings will eventually bring the Gentile nations around to a state of wondering admiration, and thus win them over to Yahwism. -
marty-130-840283 — 9 years ago(January 23, 2017 04:56 AM)
Did you know Jesus was gay ? My priest told me God wants everybody to love everybody. He said anal sex is ok too
guess what comedian?
Love does not mean sex.
Do you love your mum? or your family? Yeah? -
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bastasch8647 — 9 years ago(January 22, 2017 12:57 AM)
He wanted to prove to the world that Man has power over hatred and death. That Man is the Son of God.
I think that this principle is emphasized in the "Son of Man" passages where Jesus forgives sins and the witnesses marvel that God has granted such a blessing to men - as Jesus said, the Son of Man has authority
on earth
to forgive sins".
In this sense, it echoes 2 Peter 1:4, which states that God's/Christ's work enables us to be "partakers in the Divine Nature"